Andrew,

Rather than debating all the points each time let's deal with them one at a time. The first one is slavery:

The abolition of slavery in the Northern Atlantic was a gradual on-going process. For example, Pennsylvania banned slavery in 1780, long before Wilberforce. New York and the French abolished slavery in the 18th century but it was't until1834 that the British Empire ended slavery. The US banned the importation of slaves around the same time as the UK. Only little englanders think Wilberforce was responsible for the end of slavery and the slave trade because they are the only one's who can't see the vaste expanses of the world. Japan abolished Slavery in 1587!

So to say the“Britain ended the worldwide slave trade some 60 years earlier, by force”shows a total failure to understand the historical dynamic and certainly the nuances involved.

The important question is does the existence of slavery automatically mean that the US constitution is “lies”? I don't think it does. Many of mankind's noble developments have been in slave owning societies, Ancient Athens was a slave owning society as were the Romans, as was that paragon of nations that you keep holding up – the British Empire. Slavery was of its time and place the US civic leaders deserve much credit for its abolition.