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Only a small minority of those charged for unauthorized transactions, returned transactions, declined dds etc argue that they should not have been charged at all. Most, like me, feel that the charges imposed are disproportionate, both in relation to the sums involved and the COST to the banks of dealing with such activity.
Immediately after the Supreme Court's decision I received an e-mail from my bank advising me of a reduction in the charges for all manner of transactions and unauthorised activities. The conspiracy theorist in me immediately concluded that a deal had been done... After all, the last thing this Government needs is another whopping bill hitting the banking sector.
As for those who believe that just because they conduct their accounts within their agreed terms at all times they should receive free banking - WHY??? You receive a banking service, branches, cheque books, telephone banking and so on. Surely this is of some value/benefit to you? Why on earth should you not pay something for the service you receive? Of course, this should not be more expensive because of other less wealthy/frugal/fortunate/organised customers but the argument that your banking service should be subsidised just because you do not breach the terms of your banking arrangements is entirely lacking in logic.
Lots of online commentators are drawing a comparison with speeding fines. This partly demonstrates that many view these charges as PENALTIES. This is fine when dealing with criminal behaviour but the Law of Tort, i.e. civil wrongs, has evolved so that a party should not profit from its loss. Why on earth should the banks be allowed to do so?
Lastly, what on earth has the OFT been doing? How much has this case cost? Why did it get the wrong section (assuming it did)? Will it bring another case?
Have a good weekend
C
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